Posted by g_g_g_unit on May 12, 2009, at 2:51:25
i have a concern which was sparked by a meeting with my GP today, in which i informed him that i was trialing Memantine. he said that i did not seem to present the characteristics of glutamate overactivity (which would conventionally call for him to prescribe Neurontin); if anything, given my persistent anhedonia, faltering memory, etc. he thought it might be a case of the opposite. i realise memantine's status as a partial antagonist means that it only activitates in the face of potential exitotocity, but does that also mean itgoes some way towards restoring homoeostasis in an underactive glutamate system?
or would it be best combined with an extraneous stimulant (glycine, piracetam, etc.)?