Posted by desolationrower on May 20, 2009, at 18:42:13
In reply to Re: Please, quick explanation?, posted by g_g_g_unit on May 19, 2009, at 19:58:13
actually nmda overactivity is more likely to be excitotoxcic and thus destroy the relevant synapse
its not a partial agonist, its a low-affinity voltage-dependent uncompetitive nmda antagonist with fast-off kinetics. if you want a better explanation, look at this document:: http://www.isnvalladolid.org/pdfs/LiptonMemantineNRDD_SL.pdf
it has nice pictures and everything. memantine.com is an unusually useful site for a pharm manufactuerer. probably because its 'merz' some german company.
btw, nmda antaonism is probably how magnesium and zinc improve antidepressant response. they aren't as strong as memantine, but most people are deficient, and they help things like blood pressure too.
-d/r
poster:desolationrower
thread:895324
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/neuro/20090129/msgs/896854.html