Posted by Brainbeard on May 24, 2010, at 3:15:52 [reposted on May 24, 2010, at 22:43:11 | original URL]
In reply to , posted by on December 31, 1969, at 18:00:00
> I don't buy the notion that dopamine agonists decrease dopamine function (overall). If this were true, why are they effective (long term) for parkinsons disase?
You can only expect them to, since they mimick dopamine, binding to dopamine receptors, pushing the real thing out of the way. This is supposedly the reason why non-ergoline dopamine agonists cause sleep attacks.
I believe that OCD is a form of hyperdopaminergic activity, and that SSRI's work for OCD because of their anti-dopaminergic properties. But the overall story is so complex, I readily admit that I only understand a tiny bit of the whole picture.
Current meds: 10mg melitracene + 0.5mg flupentixol; sertraline 100mg; amitriptyline 25mg; gabapentin (Neurontin) 300mg; melatonin 0.3mg. PRN: diazepam (Valium) 2.5-5mg.
poster:Brainbeard
thread:948688
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/neuro/20100223/msgs/948729.html