Posted by Chairman_MAO on February 21, 2007, at 5:08:30
In reply to Re: why are benzodiazpines abused? like opiates... » rjlockhart, posted by yxibow on February 21, 2007, at 0:47:14
It is _impossible_ to achieve clinically significant respiratory depression with benzodiazepines alone.
This is the main reason why barbiturates are considered "obsolete" for most applications today.Benzodiazepine dependence/withdrawal can actually be worse than the barbiturates. Seizures have been reported up to two weeks after cessation of alprazolam; this does not happen, AFAIK, with the barbiturates.
Methamphetamine is a pharmaceutical drug, and has a higher therapeutic index than d-amphetamine.
Diazepam, AFAIK, is more lipophilic than alprazolam; I may be wrong about this but I believe that sublingual diazepam would kick in faster than subligual alprazolam.
Midazolam is in the same chemical class as alprazolam and triazolam, FWIW. The difference is more political than anything else, IMHO.
poster:Chairman_MAO
thread:734714
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20070219/msgs/734747.html