Posted by crazymaisie on January 17, 2007, at 22:40:45
In reply to Re: number theory, posted by Dr. Bob on January 17, 2007, at 1:06:50
sorry, i don't post much, but i do lurk
don't know if this will be of any use
but if you think of a as the product of primes:
p(1)...p(n) and b as the product of primes q(1)..q(m) with no p(i), q(j) equal, then
a^2 + b^2 would be p(1)^2...p(n)^2 + q(1)^2...q(m)^2
where you couldn't factor out any prime cause no p(i) equals any q(j)
similarly, p(1)...p(n) + q(1)...q(m) couldn't be factored either so they should be relatively primei could be completely wrong...it has been a while.
good luck, though!
poster:crazymaisie
thread:721428
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/social/20070112/msgs/723454.html