Posted by iforgotmypassword on June 2, 2008, at 8:30:03
In reply to Re: Interesting excerpt from this paper about apat, posted by undopaminergic on May 28, 2008, at 11:05:19
there is a case report, or some other acedemic like documentation, detailing a male with OCD who treats his condition with psilocybe mushrooms.
the sudden 5HT2a (and 2c?) agonism of the psilocin was presumed to cause re-regulation of the receptors (down regulation?)
WHILE apparently plain 5HT2a antagonism gives some people OCD symptoms. i actually worried that i was starting to suffer from this when i was taking risperidone. i think my preexisting dyskentic and akathitic issues "evolved" to cause painful "obsession"-linked tics.
so downregulation of 5HT2a receptors is different from straight 5HT2a antagonism? (obviously i have no actual familiarity with the word "downregulation" beyond seeing it around a lot.)
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NOW! (IMPORTANT):
i was also under the impression that 5HT2a antogonism, while techically catecolaminergic, was believed to *add* to schizophrenic cognitive difficulty, and that not just presynaptic preference but the lack of 5HT2a affinity of amisulpride that gives it's advantages in treating negative symptoms.
so what would this say about apathy specifically?
how is the syndrome of apathy defined?
poster:iforgotmypassword
thread:831008
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/neuro/20080418/msgs/832482.html