Posted by psychobot5000 on May 8, 2012, at 23:59:45
What the hell does it mean if you meet the criteria for both melancholic and atypical depression?
I know there's an exclusion under atypical for patients who are melancholic, but this strikes me as arbitrary, especially since so many of the gritty details of atypical depression fit me so well.
Does anyone know how much evidence we have that these categories are actually useful for diagnosis, treatment, or...anything? Are the distinctions valid? If so, are the prescriptions (biologically based treatment (i.e. drugs and neuronstimulation?) for melancholic depression...everything in the bag for atypical, but among medications, look to MAOis) actually useful?
F*ck this noise,
Psychobot5000
poster:psychobot5000
thread:1017453
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20120508/msgs/1017453.html