Posted by Dinah on August 16, 2011, at 5:03:25
In reply to Re: Compelled to quote.... » floatingbridge, posted by hyperfocus on August 16, 2011, at 3:35:04
It's been a while since I read the article, so I'm not sure if he implies that. But what I took from the article was sort of a refutation of what some people were saying about SSRI's at the time. That if you responded well to an SSRI, it meant that you were low on serotonin, or had some specific underlying condition. Or that such and such condition was caused by low serotonin.
I don't think the fact that the drug has a universal way of acting means that the patient doesn't have a real biological condition. Aspirin or prednisone work on a wide range of illnesses by reducing pain and inflammation. It isn't correcting some natural deficit of aspirin or steroids. It's just that many, but not all, medical conditions respond well to the conditions aspirin and prednisone bring about in the body.
It's the same reason AP's are helpful for more than psychosis. They have a tranquilizing effect. Many mental illnesses respond well to a tranquilizing effect whether or not there is an imbalance of dopamine.
I just took from it that psych meds might not be as specific as they are sometimes thought to be. That doesn't mean they are used to treat real conditions. But then I haven't read the article in full for some time.
poster:Dinah
thread:992265
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20110809/msgs/994004.html