Posted by stjames on June 1, 2003, at 20:13:46
In reply to Does Med Education Correlate With tx Resistence?, posted by MB on June 1, 2003, at 18:57:07
> So, I'm wondering if there is a correlation between education about psychopharmacology and treatment resistence. And if there is a correlation, is it causative? And if the correlation is causative, which comes first, the treatment resistence or the education.
Yes and no. If you make choices about meds
based on a flawed understanding then you have made poor choices. I see people here saying
"I did not take X becuase a poster here
had <whatever> side effect". This totally misses
the point that SE's are person specific. There is no way to know till you try. I also find people
fix on whatever SE, read the PDR and get freaked out. A poster was very conserned, having read the PDR, about a minor SE of an AP. Minor in that it was reversable, if they stopped the med. Seems they just glossed over the more significant SE's
that are not reversable.I do feel that many come here a decide not to take X meds because of what might happen.
Given that X SE might happen or not, and also
this med could be very sucessful or not, I will go with a possible positive outcome. Take the med and see.Also there is the issue of this web page representing a good cross section of folks with
mental illness. It does not, not by a long shot.
Most here don't do well on meds & have lots of problems with them. So, basing a final desision
on a med based on others sucess or failure (from
this list) is flawed.
poster:stjames
thread:230644
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030530/msgs/230658.html