Posted by dr. dave on August 20, 2002, at 5:48:24
In reply to Re: Lexapro is different » Patson, posted by pharmrep on August 20, 2002, at 0:06:06
I'm sure you believe Lexapro is different, pharmrep, but can't you see that you might not be in a position to make the most balanced of judgements on the evidence? It is not really convincing to try to persuade people it is different just by insisting that it is.
Turning to the isomer science, why are there no plausible theories at all as to how removing r-citalopram could increase speed of onset and efficacy? We know it doesn't affect the pharmacokinetics of s-citalopram and we know that it has about 1/30th the affinity for the serotonin reuptake transporter of s-citalopram so it can't be competing at the binding site. It really is inert. Lundbeck, who developed the drug, still had no theory to back up the claim that r-citalopram impedes s-citalopram's activity when I last spoke to them. Does Forrest?
I would be more than happy to discuss the deficiencies in the published papers if you wish. Independent reviews of the evidence wouldn't both come to the same conclusion for no reason.
poster:dr. dave
thread:109458
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020814/msgs/117063.html