Posted by shelliR on March 22, 2002, at 19:21:12
In reply to Re: buprenorphine for chronic pain? » cisco, posted by Elizabeth on March 22, 2002, at 18:33:00
It's a reasonable amount; 0.3 mg of buprenorphine is supposed to be equivalent to 10 mg morphine (the equivalent PO dose would be about 30 mg, I think). The maximum recommended amount of buprenorphine to be given in any single dose is 0.6 mg, and it's recommended that this dose only be used occasionally, not regularly. (Addicts need much higher doses for maintenance, of course, but that's a very different situation.)
-elizabeth
Elizabeth,
We have determined on the board that I am not an addict. Yet I have been taking .8mg regularly at one time, then usually about .6 mg later (but I also have bad chest pain mixed in with depression). Also I am taking it sublingually but from what I've read it doesn't make a difference; just takes longer to reach peak dose. I was taking a very high dose of oxycontin then methadone. I think that has affected my reaction to buprenorphine; I also need more vicodin than before. Before oxycontin, the most vicodin I ever took in a day was 7.5mg-never went up in three years. So I think for all intensive purposes I REACT like an addict. Because if heroin didn't change your brain chemistry, I think when addicts switch to bupe as an alternative, they would be able to taper very quickly. I got off of methodone (besides my nightmare hospital experience) quite easily, within a couple a week by decreasing 10mg per day I think. BTW, in Botkin's study, some of the subjects (patients) got up to 3mg a day and he still counted that as a success. So where are you getting the expected maximun dose?Shelli
poster:shelliR
thread:97162
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020322/msgs/99523.html