Posted by alexandra_k on March 1, 2022, at 15:47:50
Was likely because of the role of sex abuse in driving the unhappiness and neurosis and pathology that he was employed to treat.
The husbands and fathers of the wives and daughters.
The repression was likely that the husbands and fathers likely wouldn't have paid Freud or allowed him to talk with their wives and daughters etc if they knew the kinds of things they were saying... Or the ways in which the wives and daughters needed to... Encode... Or mask... What was going on. In ways such that they could speak about things... Without really saying. Since saying would have meant further abuses for them.
Right?
That's likely why he saw sex as being the main or major driver. Because that was driving the husbands and fathers etc. The root of the pathology. What was behind much of the sickness and disturbance and unhappiness and suffering etc etc of his patients.
So he was required to... Insofar as he was allowed to talk about such things at all... Normalise them. Say that everyone had those desires or whatever.
It likely wasn't an expression of his pathology at all. Or, it may well not have been. It was more likely to be an expression of the pathology of the people who paid him, I suppose.
I don't remember if he was independently wealthy.
I don't know that that matters, so much.
The angry mob will do what the angry mob will do if you don't do what they want when they want because they want.
poster:alexandra_k
thread:1118809
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/social/20220213/msgs/1118809.html