Posted by special_k on April 6, 2006, at 11:30:51
In reply to Absence of evidence/evidence of absence » special_k, posted by Racer on April 6, 2006, at 1:40:34
> What you say is true, up to a point, but I think this is a very interesting line of research. Literature is one of the purist forms of contemporary social history, and concepts such as repressed memory would likely have shown up in literature if it was occurring. The fact that they haven't found evidence of repressed memory or selective amnesia in literature prior to 1800 might be quite quite telling.
the 'concepts' can't show up until they have been legitimated...can you find a case of a repressed belief before the 1800's (the time of freud?)
can you?
does that mean there weren't any such things as repressed beliefs before time of freud...
or does it mean that such things were alternatively described / not judged worthy of reporting on
?
how is this different?
poster:special_k
thread:629255
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/psycho/20060406/msgs/629628.html