Posted by yeltom on September 27, 2002, at 22:30:29
The literature says that 10 mg. of Lexapro is equivalent to 40 mg. of Celexa. Does that mesh with people's experience? I don't understand why isolating one of two isomers would make the drug 4 times as potent rather than twice as potent. (I'm not a chemist, but I would have assumed the isomers in Celexa would have existed in a 1:1 ratio). Can someone explain this? I guess I'm suspicious that the makers of the drug wanted to claim that 10 mg. was equivalent to 40 mg so that they could point to a lower incidence of side effects, which wouldn't have been the case if 10 mg was equivalent to 20 mg.
poster:yeltom
thread:1176
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/psycho/20020829/msgs/1176.html