Posted by Jenna J. on January 4, 2012, at 23:42:26
I've sometimes wondered how it is acceptable to diagnose people with "diseases" based purely on subjective data alone. I've suffered from "treatment resistant depression" for over twenty years. I've been on every SSRI, SSNRI, tricyclic, stimulant, etc., available. I'm always astounded that no doctor has ever considered performing a CT scan or MRI. No doctor has ever considered drawing labs to rule out diseases such as: Wilson's Disease, Lyme Disease, Hypothyroidism, etc. Why is it acceptable to "treat" subjective symptoms and never look for tangible, objective proof of an actual physiological illness? For that matter, why do we have separate hospitals to treat people suffering from "mental illness"? Isn't that blatant discrimination?
Just curious how many other people feel that we are still in the "dark ages" when it comes to diagnosing and treating "mental illness". Also, what needs to happen to improve upon this situation? Is there a way to propel Psychiatry out of the dark ages and advance the diagnosis and treatment of "mental illness"?
poster:Jenna J.
thread:1006368
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/newbs/20111115/msgs/1006368.html