Posted by linkadge on February 6, 2010, at 17:34:19 [reposted on February 22, 2010, at 1:20:58 | original URL]
In reply to where the idea comes from...one view » linkadge, posted by floatingbridge on February 6, 2010, at 16:49:18
>I don't know enough to have come up with the >term 'dopamine responder' on my own. I was told >this by two separate doctors who came to their >conclusions without my knowledge of dopamine.
WFT does that mean? Tell me one possible way that a doctor would come to the conclusion that a patient is a dopamine responder?
I've heard doctors say that a depression is "purely serotonergic". Again, WFT does that mean? Seeing as there are no clincal tests for neurotransmitter levels, and SSRI's don't consistently raise serotonin levels there is virtually no way to know that either.
I think basically doctors are still separating patients into two categores (for lack of better knowledge of depression). Those with sadness / high anxiety, and those with apathy, low interest / energy.
The former is said to be a product of serotonin dysfunction and the latter of norepinephrine or dopamine dysfunction. However, this is a gross oversimplification that doctors use to make them feel that they actually understand depression. This oversimplification has been around for the past 30 years.
Apathy in depression can respond to antipsychotics and anxiety / sadness can respond to stimulants. There are very little *useful* predictive tests as to what medication will work for what patient.
Linkadge
poster:linkadge
thread:937616
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/neuro/20091104/msgs/937623.html