Posted by tealady on March 27, 2005, at 17:56:42
In reply to Re: Magnesium survey » banga, posted by Larry Hoover on March 27, 2005, at 12:21:14
Well Lar that still doesn't make total sense to me either :-)
Take for instance
"Magnesium oxide was ... 43% soluble in simulated peak acid secretion (24.2 mEq hydrochloric acid/300 ml)."
OK..so I assume this means MgO and HCl forms Mg ions, Cl ions ..at maybe 43%..rest stays as MgO? (assuming nothing else is taking concurrently and empty stomach etc)So what difference could this possibly be to taking MgCl at 43% dosage level of the MgO?
referring to "Results indicated relatively poor bioavailability of magnesium oxide (fractional absorption 4 per cent) but significantly higher and equivalent bioavailability of magnesium chloride"
Also there is an assumption that MgO is taken on a completely empty stomach ..I think??
Would be a higher absorption rate if taken with something acidic ..like a mix of citrate and oxide forms?, or even with some betaine HCl, or even vinegar?I guess my main question is why consider JUST urine?(OK I think I know the answer, the researchers wanted to limit the amount of work?)..I do realise that urine measures what is absorbed first then excreted. However if you don't measure the part NOT absorbed as well..how do you know for sure what you are seeing is not the effect of absorption AND utilisation within body as opposed to excretion via urine.
OK..I'm a pain, but it's how I read it..:-)
Jan
poster:tealady
thread:476058
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/alter/20050323/msgs/476350.html