Posted by Onestone on March 30, 2009, at 6:56:43
Hello, Babble.
Why is anhedonia regarded as facet of depression? All my internet searches suggest this categorisation is universal, but is there any scientific evidence to suggest this is valid?
I think I was anhedonistic as a young child. Yet I threw myself with vigour into all the things that young children vigorously throw themselves into; at that stage I wasn't yet depressed. As far as I can remember.
My anhedonia isn't a facet of my depression, it's the cause of it. This surely explains why trying to treat me with antidepressants hasn't worked. Why should it, any more than using antibiotics would?
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Onestone.
poster:Onestone
thread:887696
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20090330/msgs/887696.html