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Long Response to Polarbear » polarbear206

Posted by flame on June 19, 2007, at 8:26:53

In reply to Re: See my Pdoc today - PLEA for advice! PLEASE HELP » flame, posted by polarbear206 on June 18, 2007, at 22:24:56

"Would you mind giving me a more detailed history about your husband?"

My husband began having "problems" after we had been married for a couple of years. We are 28 yrs. married this year .. so obviously it's been going on for quite a while.

In talking with counselors/psychologists that he and "we" had seen in the past, they say part of my husband's problem is his emotional immaturity. My husband finally found a counselor that he "respected", but the minute this guy appeared to begin getting to the "crux" of my husband's issues, he would bail on the counseling sessions. Now he is adamant about the fact that he doesn't need counseling .. psychologists are all in it for the money .. and he knows what he has to do, he just has to do it. (Very frustrating because even though he "knows" what he has to do, he can't do it!)

What my husband reported (all along) as his symptoms were and ARE extreme depression and anxiety. In the past he told me that he actually had panic attacks while driving on the road and had to pull over until he got through it. This happened several times, from what I can remember. He hasn't mentioned to me that he has had anything like that again, so I'm assuming that (at least) in the past three years, he hasn't?

Those are what my husband reports as his symptoms/problems. I add to this his uncontrollable anger. He can be set off very easily. I will also add to this (for most recently) is his drinking and wreckless spending.

"Was he on the effexor first before the others?"

My husband had been on Paxil and Buspar for years, through his family doc. He finally got a name of supposedly a good psychiatrist from that previous "respected" psychologist and has been going to this current doc (psychiatrist) since March of 2004. I received a print out from our pharmacy .. from back then, and it appears that this new doc started him on Effexor 150mg and Lorazepam 0.5mg. He was on that for two months and then I see in May 2004, the doc kept him on current Effexor (150mg), stopped the Loraxepam and began Mirapex (1mg) and Ambien 10mg. I believe that it was over the next couple of months that the Effexor was gradually increased to the current 375mgs. Ambien is now Ambien CR 12.5mgs and Mirapex is still at 1 mg. I mentioned that he as on the Provigil (this is newer, probably in the past year or so) and in looking at my journaling/notes, I see that not only is that supposed to help husband's daytime sleepiness, but it (somehow) augments the Effexor..?

"What other drugs has he tried or been on in the past?"

He has tried a lot of different antidepressants throughout the years. I believe that wellbutrin was one .. and I believe I remember him saying that it made him not feel anything. Besides that and what I mentioned above, I can't remember all that he has tried.

I don't think his doc has diagnosed him as bipolar. I have looked up his diagnosis code (in the past) and usually it just has something to do with depression and anxiety ...?

What are some things that I would look for in bipolar disorder? I know I can look this up, but am trying to get your perspective here.

"The mirapex and provigal don't help matters either if this is the case."

What would/will these two do IF this IS the case?

No, he hasn't tried to cut back on anything. It is only just recently that I "realized" that his current problems are more than likely induced by his current prescription regimen. I am at the end of my rope and am almost feeling like I am grasping. I sent my husband pdoc a letter and I am very afraid that he will not put much stock in it.

"Why has his doctor let this continue for so long without switching to another AD?"

VERY good question! In my opinion, my husband cannot see the forest from the trees right now. I believe that he is going to his three month med check appointments and saying things are okay. I am ALSO thinking that husband probably plays things down 'cause his doc has brought up to him too many times that he should not be drinking.

"The drinking and spending raise some red flags. Has it been discussed that this could be drug induced mood cycling?"

If you read up on Mirapex, you will see that there are many cases of compulsive behaviour linked to taking this drug. My husbands ..I believe, is drinking (has he become an alcoholic?) and spending money wrecklessly.

I have no idea if his doc explored "drug induced mood cycling". If his doc was "exploring" this, wouldn't there have been some med changes going on? Could you explain this to me a bit more?

I appreciate all of your questions AND your response. I need to be educated! Anything you can give me as far as ideas ..or fill me in on is SO appreciated!

My husband's attitude .. for way too long, is that he just has to get through life .. SOMEHOW. He appears to have given up on ever being helped.

I posted this reply on this thread again, because I was afraid it would be missed by polarbear if I did not. Anyone .. please advise if there is another way I should be doing this. I really do not intend to hi-jack this thread ...


Thanks,
Flame


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