Posted by Johann on May 11, 2007, at 16:49:53
In reply to Re: NIMH on Bipolar Spectrum Disorder--YES » Johann, posted by kaleidoscope on May 11, 2007, at 16:10:36
This seems to me to be an avoidance of the question. No particular drug is mentioned, and there are symptoms and long-term history included. (Just substitute classic mania and depression. Would you say that the obvious BP1 Dx was contingent on a particular drug?)
> >So how would you classify people whose chronic depression (and minor mood swings) is only effectively treated with mood stabilizers (after trying many ADs over many years)?
>
> Response to a particular drug should never be used to make a psychiatric diagnosis.
>
>
poster:Johann
thread:757178
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20070509/msgs/757869.html