Posted by psychobot5000 on March 31, 2007, at 12:11:19
Since methylphenidate and amphetamine are both considered to act primarily through stimulating DA and NA release, and blocking their reuptake, and have long been distinguished from antidepressants...
Why were amineptine and nomifensine, which as far as I can tell acted via 'dopamine reuptake inhibition with additional effects on the adrenal system' (the former), and 'dopamine and NA reuptake inhibition' (the latter, which I note was approved even in the US) generally considered and prescribed as antidepressants?
Does anyone know of a difference in their mechanisms of action that would explain why those medications might have been more useful as antidepressants...or some other distinguishing quality?
Always in search of a good dopaminergic antidepressant,
psychbot
poster:psychobot5000
thread:745746
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20070327/msgs/745746.html