Posted by iforgotmypassword on January 25, 2007, at 7:41:04
i was wondering if this is possible.
focused rTMS does not need a seizure.
DBS does not need a seizure.
what if therapeutic effect were wholly dependant on electrical stimulation.
what if higher doses of ketamine than experimented cancelled out the seizure. (preventing glutamate contact at NMDA receptors.)
i think the theory that ect thought damage is caused by glutamate excitoxicity (the seizure is brought on by a glutamte flood reaction) is extremely possible. it could very well not be the electricity "frying" the brain, glial cells or what have you... it may be quite plausible that the electricity could be therapeutic without the seizure? why do other therapies exist without it.
why is it possible for non-seizure inducing magnets to have the therapeutic potential uniform to its MST seizure inducing equivalent practically.
maybe "many times the seizure threshold" is just analagous to the amount of electricity needed for therapeutic effect.
poster:iforgotmypassword
thread:726267
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20070125/msgs/726267.html