Posted by ed_uk on March 7, 2006, at 17:12:35
OK, here goes. Feel free to agree or disagree..........
I do not believe that the 'new' Nardil is any less effective than the 'old' Nardil.
Both formulations contain 15mg phenelzine sulfate. There are some differences in the excipients. I am not convinced that such differences are clinically important, at least not to most people.
It is my belief that people are being harmed by being told that the 'new' Nardil is ineffective. There is no scientific data to support this view. One would expect both formulations to be equally effective. Any minor differences in bioavailabily should be offset by appropriate adjustments in dose.
I am not posting this to 'get at' people who believe (or have been led to believe) that the 'new' Nardil is in some way significantly inferior to the 'old' Nardil. I am starting this thread because I believe that people are being harmed by the hoopla surrounding the change in Nardil's excipients. Many people may misunderstand the situation. Nardil contains exactly the same drug at exactly the same dose as it always did. There have been some changes to the excipients in the tablet. There is no evidence that such changes should be important.
The power of suggestion is strong.
Ed
poster:ed_uk
thread:617166
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060304/msgs/617166.html