Posted by fenix on February 16, 2006, at 14:58:21
I am going to need a lot of user feedback for this one.
Anyway, I wanted to gather statistics for this theory I had concerning generic benzodiazepines being low potency compared to brand name.
After reading a lot of posts on several websites I noticed a specific pattern, and I am wondering if there is something more to this pattern. I believe the real issue is the form of the tablet produced and not the company itself. For instance, I have heard people saying that Purepac makes potent clonazepam, and yet others saying that they make very poor potency clonazepam. There was a pattern I noticed now with the people that said that the clonazepam from Purepac was poor, in that they always mentioned a "pink pill". Well, Purepac does produce clonazepam in a pink form being their .5mg tablets.
Well, I noticed myself that their .5 pink pills are very bad, and yet remembering that a few years ago I was on Purepac's 1mg tablets, and how those specific ones were very potent.
So basically the theory is that (at least concerning Purepac's clonazepam, though I am wondering if this concerns many other generic manufacturers) the lower the form of the dosage the lower the quality. In other words, at least concerning Purepac, 2(.5mg) clonazepam tablets does *not* equal one 1mg clonazepam tablet concerning potency.
I want to collect experience from others and see if there is a trend like this. So the questions are:
What benzodiazepine were you on?
From what manufacturer?
What size was the tablet?
How was the potency/quality?
poster:fenix
thread:610294
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060212/msgs/610294.html