Posted by linkadge on January 20, 2006, at 14:51:20
In reply to Re: Which ADs increase DOPAMINE the most? » linkadge, posted by shasling on January 20, 2006, at 13:36:12
>Just so that I understand the position, there is >no such thing as dopamine deficiency, or just no >such thing as it having an effect on one's sense >of volition, reward, etc.?
I never said either. I just questioned under what pretenses one is able to discern what exactly the problem is. For instance, if you are basing your assumption that you have a dopamine deficancy based on sucess with abilify, then that would not be correct in my oppinion.
Additionally, I am arguing that mood responce to stimulants is by no means indicitive of a dopamine deficancy.
>For the record,I am aware that Abilify acts as >an antagonist on one set of receptors and an >agonist on another. Although I am not a chemist >nor a doctor, what do I have - and no one else >does - is the totality of my experience, >spanning 25 years and close to as many meds, >struggling for relief. And other circumstances ?>not necessary to go into here in that it is >unnecessary to convince anyone of what my opinion is, it being an opinion, and being mine.You don't need to convince me. I never asked that.
>What you have is an opinion as well, and you are >certainly entitled to it. I'm just saying it >seems unnecessary and perhaps destructive to >issue blanket opinions that certain theories >that others may have here are invalid.
I am not saying that your experiences may not lead you to more appropriate treatment. I am just saying that we don't really have enough diagnostic tools to make that exact conclusion.
For instance, if somebody said to me that they must be dopamine deficiant because wellbutrin worked, then that too may be misuided due to that fact that wellbutrin may have more effect on norepinephrine than dopamine.
We only really had one pure dopaminergic antidepressant which was amineptine. So I am just wondering what leads people to this conclusion, thats all.
>Now, you may be right, of course, but don't we >deserve to come to that on our own? I mean, we >are all here trying to figure out why we are >depressed/whatever and it won't get better. I >don't know what your particular condition is, >but if a discussion ensued wherein your >condition was alleged to be invalid - thus >implying you may think you know what is going on >with your own condition, but you are really >clueless - might it not invalidate you and thus >sort of hurt?I restate that I never claimed that your condition was invalid. I was simply wondering how you reached the conclusion that your condition was solely due to a deficiancy in dopamine. Allong the same lines, I might argue that a responce to SSRI's is not necessarily indicitive of serotonin deficiancy. (All the currently available SSRI's have other targets such as SIG-1R, Allopregnalone etc) If somebody was deficiant in serotonin, we would expect them to respond to any SSRI, but we know that is not the case. There are many reasons why I would question people's conclusions. I am not saying they are wrong, I am just questioning their conclusions.
>The beliefs I have come to are not impacted by >the statements that were made, and I feel no >need to convince anyone else of them; I just >said I was disappointed by blanket opinions of >the invalidity of things that others here are >trying to work through.I did not intend you to stop doing what helps you the most. This board is full of many different opinions.
Linkadge
poster:linkadge
thread:599864
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060115/msgs/601123.html