Posted by Deneb on January 2, 2006, at 22:50:03
Some people here seem to think that 0.75mg of Risperdal helped me, but what I need to know is *why* it would help me.
I don't consider myself to have ever been truly psychotic. So, why would it help me?
What if it were given to normal healthy people? Would it affect them? How would it affect them? (Sorry I'm not up to snuff on all the research like some of you are)
How do I tell whether it was just me or the drug?
What are the possible theories for why and how it would help me? OK, if and only if it helps me, what does this mean for me? Would this really mean that I have something similar to people who are psychotic?
Deneb, weary of anything called an "anti-psychotic"
poster:Deneb
thread:594584
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20051231/msgs/594584.html