Posted by Racer on July 17, 2005, at 18:13:54
In reply to Re: Dr. Breggin on Tom Cruise, ritalin and psychiatry., posted by linkadge on July 17, 2005, at 17:29:44
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> Would we prescribe an antianxiety agent for anxiety in a person where we knew caffiene was the primary cause? Of course not. We'd tell the individual to cut the caffiene.
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> Coffee can cause anxiety in anybody, if the dose is too high. Some people are more sensitive to this than others. Likewise antidepressant induced mania does not directly indicate bipolar disorder.
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> Linkadge
>You make a pretty good point, Link. I think, though, that most of the pre-marketing studies involving people with no history of either unipolar or bipolar disorders showed no mania? I think that's the difference: in "normal" people, the drugs don't induce mania, so if they induce mania, it's likely the individual was already vulnerable, thus likely bipolar. Make sense?
Still, it's a pretty good point, it's certainly something to think about, and it's a good analogy.
Thanks for the food for thought.
poster:Racer
thread:529095
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050713/msgs/529192.html