Posted by Mistermindmasta on February 23, 2005, at 0:02:14
In reply to Re: Why I Hate Neuroleptics and Forced Hosptialization, posted by med_empowered on February 22, 2005, at 16:46:17
"The problems with these and other "findings" (such as reduced volume of the thalamus, etc.) include: 1) although some studies have identified brain "abnormalities" that are more common in the schizophrenic group than the non-schizophrenic group, these "abnormalities" tend to be observed in BOTH GROUPS. They also are not found in ALL, and, often, not even in MOST schizophrenics. The difference between the two groups, then, is one of frequency of the observed abnormality."
So you are saying that certain abnormalities are more frequent among schizophrenics? I wouldn't say this is a sure sign that the disease is biological in origin, but it definitely adds to the data to support the idea.
"Compare this to...brain cancer. THose who have brain cancer can be diagnosed with a brain scan showing the presence of tumor. Those without brain cancer don't have such tumors. The physical differences between the two groups is such that they establish a diagnostic test, and the differences are pretty simple: present or not present, therefore the patient is sick or not sick."
I don't think that's a good analogy. It's ok, but not good. If, for example, seeing underactive NMDA glutamate pathways were as easy as seeing tumors, then yes, I would say it's a good analogy.
poster:Mistermindmasta
thread:461854
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050222/msgs/462122.html