Posted by jclint on December 5, 2004, at 17:09:49
In reply to Dad Cites Boy's Antidepressants in Deaths, posted by Peddidle on December 5, 2004, at 16:40:53
I have to say though, my first impression is that the father is most likely grasping for a scapegoat... understandably. I don't believe an SSRI could be the catalyst of the boy's actions. The boy was clearly disturbed beforehand. I don't think zoloft could turn a 'well-adjusted' person into a homicidal/phsycotic person.
I suppose the issue here is not whether the zoloft made the boy homicidal, but whether the doctors who it prescribed to him failed to realise his urgent condition.
Just my $0.02...
poster:jclint
thread:424892
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20041201/msgs/424908.html