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Re: Tramadol: headache at first or always? Ame, anyone

Posted by Ame Sans Vie on April 8, 2004, at 16:33:54

In reply to Tramadol: headache at first or always? Ame, anyone, posted by spoc on April 8, 2004, at 10:10:04

> Anyway, I planned to attempt to still just use it occasionally, but not quite as cautiously, maybe a few times a week. Mainly to get over the worst hump, and then if it didn't seem feasible to continue with, if necessary using prozac to get off it with fewer discontinuation symptoms.
>
> So for the last three days I have taken about 100 mg/day, 50 mgs. at a time, leaving latitude to start low and go higher if necessary. What I am wondering about is the fact that I notice I get somewhat of a headache when a dose is wearing off. I don't recall if that happened when I was only taking it on random days in a month. I saw that someone who is allergic to codeine may not be able to take tramadol, and I indeed have a strong sensitivity to codeine, that may have followed this same pattern: when it was prescribed for pain in the past, I had been able to take it for quite awhile before it ever gave me headaches. But now it would every single time -- horrific ones.
>
> SO! I'm wondering which is more likely: that what happened to me with codeine will eventually happen with tramadol; OR, if the headaches might just be a s/e like those experienced when beginning any psy drug (which tramadol does seem to be viewed as by some). I mean, if it has similar actions and withdrawal to those of Effexor, surely getting to a "steady state" could also have some bumps. Anyone have an opinion on that? Thing is, I need to decide now whether to get more and don't want to waste the money.

It sounds possible to me that you could be a poor CYPIID6 metabolizer. Codeine, hydrocodone, oxycodone, and tramadol are "activated" via this enzyme system by transformation into their respective prodrugs: morphine, hydromorphone (Dilaudid), oxymorphone (Nubain), and o-desmethyltramadol. A poor metabolizer would be more likely to have a build-up of the ingested drug lingering in their system, causing unwanted side effects when taken on a more regular basis as you describe. That is, you may have more tramadol in your system than the more active metabolite form which is considerably more potent a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor and mu-opioid agonist.

I would suggest that you be tested for this enzyme deficiency; I'm not sure of your ethnicity, but among caucasians it is extremely common (around 3-7%). Your doctor will administer a dose of dextromethorphan (DXM; the cough suppressant found in Vicks-44 and Robitussin) which is a drug that is metabolized by CYPIID6 into another similar drug, dextrorphan (DXO). He/she will measure the amount of DXM vs. DXO in your urine at various intervals to determine whether or not you are an efficient CYPIID6 metabolizer.

>
> A second question would be, does anyone know if tramadol would actually need to be taken *every day* to have a consistent AD effect, or would taking it just a few times a week as I plan to also be feasible?

I'd say that, speaking in terms of opioid effect, 100mg of tramadol is roughly equivalent to 60mg codeine; hardly an opiate dose that would provide any significant relief from depression or other psychiatric woes. From my experience, it is this minor opioidergic effect *combined* with what I consider to be a very underrated SNRI effect that causes long-lasting relief. While a single dose every now and again may help, I feel it really should be taken on a regular basis to receive full benefit of the SNRI-activity, just as you would with Effexor. And, as you prudently noted, Prozac is very important to remember should the time come that you would like to withdraw from this drug.


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poster:Ame Sans Vie thread:334061
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20040407/msgs/334194.html