Posted by Snoozy on April 17, 2003, at 1:04:02
In reply to Lorazepam/Ativan lost its effects, WHY ?, posted by janejj on April 16, 2003, at 23:00:52
I don't know about the tolerance, but as to the drug's potency: pharmacies usually give you meds that they say will expire in one year (I believe the true period before it loses potency is longer, but I would guess the pharmacies have settled on the one-year because they can apply it across the board, making it easier to fill scripts without having to get an expiration date from the bottle for every script they fill, and the one year safely covers everything they dispense. I don't think they would ever give you something and say it was good for a year when it truly wasn't.)
If you still have the bottle the rx came in, does it say anything on the label about expiration date?
> Hi,
>
> I have some Lorazepam that I used to take fairly regularly. The thing is when i take it now, like 3 months later it just has absolutely no effect !
>
> I had originaly built up a tolerance, but I thought that dimished if you stop taking it. Could it be that i have built up a permanent tolerance to it or could it be that cos the med is fairly old (6 months) that it has lost it potency ?
>
> Thanks !;)
poster:Snoozy
thread:219932
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030411/msgs/219969.html