Posted by Ritch on January 4, 2003, at 9:47:53
In reply to Re: Calling all bipolars! Any Of You?, posted by Tabitha on January 4, 2003, at 3:34:37
> >
> > Hi Scott, if I take *standard* doses of AD's I do get hypomanic and worsen. However, if I don't take any I might not have a job for very long. If I take "plenty" of mood stabilizer, so I approach a "standard" dose of antidepressant, then I can't function either (cognitively). So, I take just a little AD and it works fairly well. Finding methods to divide things that small is a real hassle however.
>
> Interesting. I've come to the same place. I can't get anywhere near a normal dose of mood stabiliser due to dizziness, stomach pain, and hypersomnia (with all that going on I barely notice the cognitive problems). Yet a normal does of AD makes me agitated and hypo. Right now I'm using a half-dose of celexa and a pinch of neurontin for sleep. I still get hypo in the summer, and was thinking I'd have to do another mood stabiliser trial. Perhaps I'll just chop the celexa into quarters instead.
>
> My pdoc doesn't really accept this approach-- he keeps wanting to add more mood stabilisers on top of what I'm taking.
>
Hi, there was an excellent post here that had a link to an article written by a psychiatrist who was questioning the use of the term "mood-stabilizer" and preferred to use "antimanic" instead. I agreed with most of his argument. I will try to find it (maybe whoever posted it will dig it back up). I realize that *ideally* avoiding antidepressants would be preferable, but what if you have comorbidities (other than depression/dysthymia) which respond well to their use? Wouldn't it be a lot easier to just take LESS of something (an AD, i.e.) than heap on more "mood stabilizers" that may or may not work well or cause other problems (psychosis, depression, depersonalization, cognitive dysfunction, ...)...
poster:Ritch
thread:133311
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20021230/msgs/134442.html