Psycho-Babble Medication | about biological treatments | Framed
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Re: venlafaxine vs. mirtazapine

Posted by oracle on July 26, 2002, at 14:30:59

In reply to Re: venlafaxine vs. mirtazapine, posted by cybercafe on July 24, 2002, at 20:31:01

basically what i'm saying is i totally agree with you -- this stuff is pretty complicated... but it seems to be beneficial to try and understand different levels of function ...

I was thinking more along the lines of statements
like "selective meds are better' and "I can tell how a med will work based on how the receptors are effected" I felt the assumption here was that
neurochemistry functions in a vacuum.

I see mental illness is a cascade of events. You cannot isolate one NT because if you effect one (with a med) you actually effect many of them.
We can say X effects Y, but the rest (Y effects D, which effects C, E and G, ect) is still not very clear.

The med may be selective, the effects are not. This is why "dirty" meds tend to work better and why polymeds work. Also, we can qualify that X med
blocks Y uptake, but we cannot map the complex cascade of events the lead to AD's changing mood.
The chaotic and complex systems that opperate here
are beyond our ability to map at this point.

I think many depressions are DNA based but some are caused by other events. So by root cause
I mean the very first biochemical/bioelectrical
event that starts this cascade effect that results in depression. I think this is where medication would be most sucessful. Till we can fix "bad" DNA.


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poster:oracle thread:112950
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