Posted by mat on April 27, 2002, at 11:12:41
hi!
i just browsed a bit in the DSM-IV-TR and while studying the diagnostic criteria for the bipolar disorders i wondered why
someone who has only experienced one manic episode is considered to be BIpolar I.
can anybody help me understand this?
thanks in advance-mat
poster:mat
thread:104301
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020425/msgs/104301.html