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bipolar I without depression?

Posted by mat on April 27, 2002, at 11:12:41

hi!
i just browsed a bit in the DSM-IV-TR and while studying the diagnostic criteria for the bipolar disorders i wondered why
someone who has only experienced one manic episode is considered to be BIpolar I.
can anybody help me understand this?
thanks in advance-

mat


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poster:mat thread:104301
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020425/msgs/104301.html