Posted by Chris A. on June 25, 2001, at 13:04:21
In reply to Re: What counts as hypomania - Mitch » Chris A., posted by Mitch on June 24, 2001, at 18:42:57
Not all American psychiatrists and researchers are satisfied with the DSM 1V R bipolar classificaltions. They believe that they are too arbitrary, provide clear categories for easy answers to research, but don't serve those of us who are ill very well. On a technicality I am diagnosed BP I, but don't really fit that category at all because I've never been truly manic. Prozac caused hypomania followed by a horrible crash that I've never fully recovered from. Since I have mixed symptoms and was hospitalized in the midst of that I am considered BPI. My experience always seems to be closer to BP II, though. Some, like Askidal would say BP III since hypomania initially occurred in response to an AD. In all the screening tests I don't even qualify for bipolar. Even so my moods shift suddenly. I'll be doing fair one day and suicidal the next. Hence, I won't fight the BP diagnosis so that I can get the right treatment. ADs make the depressions worse, so I'll stick to the mood stabilizers.
Blessings,
Chris A.
poster:Chris A.
thread:67368
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010625/msgs/67827.html