Posted by jd on January 17, 2000, at 18:21:04
In reply to Buspar: dopamine agonist or antagonist? (Eliz?), posted by anita on January 16, 2000, at 23:03:50
I believe I've read that buspar is a mild antagonist at the D2 receptor, which is why there was a tad of concern at the outset whether it might cause antipsychotic-like side effects. (I don't think there's much concern about this any more.) Your hypothesis sounds reasonable to me: it's known that meds that specifically antagonize the D2 autoreceptor can increase dopamine levels and function like antidepressants. I've don't recall ever hearing buspar called an agonist or partial agonist at dopamine receptors, though it is generally referred to as a partial agonist at serotonin 1A receptors, I believe.
best,
jd> Does Buspar increase or decrease dopamine, generally speaking? I've seen it labelled as one or the other in Medline -- which is it? If a study says it's a dopamine antagonist, yet goes on to say it increases dopamine in various areas of the brain, does that mean it is an antagonist at dopamine autoreceptors, and thus acts like an agonist?
>
> Thanks,
> anita
poster:jd
thread:19073
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20000112/msgs/19107.html