Posted by Paul on February 2, 1999, at 14:43:00
In a post last month, someone asked about P450 inhibition caused by sertraline affecting hydrocodone metabolism. Matt then referred to an article at http://www.btpnews.com/druginac.html relating to this subject. However, codeine was the only opioid listed on the list of drugs affected by the P450 inhibition induced by sertraline. I'm inclined to believe from my own experience that hyrdrocodone is affected in the same way.
I found an interesting article at http://www.nida.nih.gov/DirReports/DirRep298/DirectorReport1.html entitled "Genetically Deficient CYP2D6 Metabolism Provides Protection Against Oral Opiate Dependence" which suggests that genetically induced P450 inhibition results in lower predisposition to opioid dependence.
I am only a layperson, and have not studied this professionally. Have I concluded correctly that Zoloft affects metabolism of oral opioids in this fashion? The article says that "oral opiates (e.g. codeine, oxycodone, and hydrocodone) are metabolized by cytochrome CYP2D6 to metabolites of increased activity (e.g. morphine, oxymorphone and hydro-morphone)."
Any comments, anyone?
Thank you.
poster:Paul
thread:2791
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/19990201/msgs/2791.html