Posted by Toby on August 21, 1998, at 10:08:01
In reply to Re: Schizophrenia/ Neuropathology , posted by Levi on August 21, 1998, at 3:46:48
Ever asked your doc why he persists with 295.7 if he believes you are in fact 295.3?
It sounds as if you have what I talked about in my last posting -- mostly schizophrenia with affective symptoms. If so, it may be more convenient for the doc to just say, "you have schizophrenia" but for you both to be aware of the depression and the need for the antidepressants. But with the presence of the depression, diagnostically you would have to be listed as 295.7 for insurance purposes, etc to justify the use of the antidepressant on a long term basis. Also, remember that the prognosis is much better for 295.7 than 295.3. That's probably why you respond so well to the neuroleptics and, judging by your vocabulary and syntax, cognitively you seem to be doing very well. With plain schizophrenia, that's not always the case (although there was the schizophrenic fellow who went to Yale of Harvard or something and did great).
poster:Toby
thread:289
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/19980801/msgs/338.html