Psycho-Babble Medication Thread 240547

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Re: Anitphycotics vs 5ht2a receptor drugs

Posted by AndyAI on July 10, 2003, at 9:38:33

In reply to , posted by Re: Anitphycotics vs 5ht2a receptor drugs on en

I take rispiridone for hypomania and i seem to have improved since my first episode is it possible that rispiridone is such a powerfull inverse antagonist of 5ht2a that it is permanantly altering the levels of 5ht2a and so reducing the severity of my episodes?, is it possible that any dendrites that are dependant on 5ht2a are being 'shut down' due to lack of signal propogation. Secondly if i was to take remeron, serzone or trazodone would they be more effective than rispiridone, i have never hallucinated and i think the inverse antagonism of 5ht2a is what is causing my mania to be removed when i use rispiridone.

 

Inverse antagonism?? AndyAI

Posted by Jack Smith on July 10, 2003, at 13:11:20

In reply to Re: Anitphycotics vs 5ht2a receptor drugs, posted by AndyAI on July 10, 2003, at 9:38:33

> I think the inverse antagonism of 5ht2a is what is causing my mania to be removed when i use rispiridone.

What do you mean by "inverse" antagonism? I think that would be an agonist. Antagonism slows down the receptor.

 

Re: Inverse antagonism??

Posted by AndyAI on July 10, 2003, at 19:14:01

In reply to Inverse antagonism?? AndyAI, posted by Jack Smith on July 10, 2003, at 13:11:20

> > I think the inverse antagonism of 5ht2a is what is causing my mania to be removed when i use rispiridone.
>
> What do you mean by "inverse" antagonism? I think that would be an agonist. Antagonism slows down the receptor.

from what i've read rispiridone blocks the receptor from binding to seretonin, i'm wondering if this may explain it's properties with regard to my mainia and if other drugs with this property would do the same.

 

Re: Inverse antagonism??

Posted by Jack Smith on July 10, 2003, at 19:24:16

In reply to Re: Inverse antagonism??, posted by AndyAI on July 10, 2003, at 19:14:01

> from what i've read rispiridone blocks the receptor from binding to seretonin, i'm wondering if this may explain it's properties with regard to my mainia and if other drugs with this property would do the same.
>

OK, then it's an antagonist. Nothing inverse about it.

 

Re: Inverse antagonism??

Posted by avid abulia on July 13, 2003, at 16:05:28

In reply to Re: Inverse antagonism??, posted by Jack Smith on July 10, 2003, at 19:24:16

> > from what i've read rispiridone blocks the receptor from binding to seretonin, i'm wondering if this may explain it's properties with regard to my mainia and if other drugs with this property would do the same.
> >
>
> OK, then it's an antagonist. Nothing inverse about it.
>

Yeah, inverse antagonism is an oxymoron, an antagonist binds to the receptor and by definition does not cause an effect whatsoever.

There is inverse agonism, wherein one substance binds to a receptor and causes one effect, but if another substance binds it produces the opposite effect, that is probably what you are thinking of.

From what i have heard, 5-HT2A antagonism is useful for the negative symptoms of psychotic illnesses, amotivation/abulia, asocialism, anhedonia, depression, anxiety, and the like, but it is D2/D3 receptor antagonism that lowers pathologically elevated mood.

Risperidone is not even a particularly high-affinity 5-HT2A antagonist, that is why it is the atypical associated with the most EPS.

If you want a 5-HT2a drug with higher affinity for 5-HT2A vs. dopamine receptors, ziprasidone is the only one commercially available that is very significantly higher (by more than an order of magnitude!)

~AA


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