Psycho-Babble Medication Thread 110787

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MORE HELP WITH TERMINOLOGY PLEASE

Posted by DiscoPuppy on June 26, 2002, at 3:02:45

I think I have a good handle on what reuptake inhibition, neurotransmitter release, and monoamine oxidase inhibition is, but. . .

what is an "antagonist" (as in "dopamine antagonist") and is it easy to explain in everyday language?

-puppy-

 

Re: MORE HELP WITH TERMINOLOGY PLEASE » DiscoPuppy

Posted by Cam W. on June 26, 2002, at 4:19:31

In reply to MORE HELP WITH TERMINOLOGY PLEASE, posted by DiscoPuppy on June 26, 2002, at 3:02:45

An antagonist is a receptor blocker. Antagonists usually block, or at least dampen, electrical flow from one nerve cell to the nest.

The antagonist molecule binds to a certain neurotransmitter receptor (eg. dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine) and blocks (inhibits) the appropriate neurotransmitter from binding to it's receptor.

If the neurotransmitter, which is released into the synaptic gap between 2 nerve cells, is not able to pass the electrical signal along nerves, thus decreasing the number and severity symptoms due to an excess of that neurotransmitter.

For example; dopamine antagonist usually refers to a "Dopamine-type2-receptor blocker". Examples of these are the traditional antipsychotics like Largactil™ (chlorpromazine); Mellaril™/Thorazine™ (thioridazine); Haldol™ (haloperidol), and the newer mood-stabilizing antipsychotics like Risperdal™ (riperidone); Zyprexa™ (olanzapine); Clozaril™ (clozapine), and the rest.

Psychoses is thought to be caused by a faulty, perhaps oversensitive &/or overactive, dopamine system. By blocking dopamine-D2-receptors, the overactive dopamine signal is muted, and there is, hopefully, a corresponding drop in the symptoms of psychosis.

I hope that this is of some help. - Cam



> what is an "antagonist" (as in "dopamine antagonist") and is it easy to explain in everyday language?
>
> -puppy-

 

Re: More Terminology » DiscoPuppy

Posted by medlib on June 26, 2002, at 4:46:11

In reply to MORE HELP WITH TERMINOLOGY PLEASE, posted by DiscoPuppy on June 26, 2002, at 3:02:45

Hi DP--

Here's a post by CamW (Canadian pharmacist with special expertise in psych meds) on agonists/antagonists. (You can skip the first paragraph.) I saved it to reread when I become disoriented wading through journal articles and psychopharm texts. His explanations were much appreciated, but I think that our endless questions finally wore him out and he returned to real life.

http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20011015/msgs/82023.html

Or, you can find brief definitions at yourDictionary.com (link in my post above).

Hope this helps---medlib

 

Re: MORE HELP WITH TERMINOLOGY PLEASE » DiscoPuppy

Posted by GreatDaneBoy on June 26, 2002, at 10:44:13

In reply to Re: MORE HELP WITH TERMINOLOGY PLEASE » DiscoPuppy, posted by Cam W. on June 26, 2002, at 4:19:31

Hi all!

I too have a question about dopamine antagonists and anti-psychotic drugs. If these drugs block dopamine action, then it would seem that it would not be a great idea to combine them with Wellbutrin, which I understand increases dopamine activity. I ask because a friend of mine is taking both Zyprexa and Wellbutrin. Is this weird or do I just not get it?

Thanks to everyone on this board for sharing all of your wisdom!!!

Dane =)


> An antagonist is a receptor blocker. Antagonists usually block, or at least dampen, electrical flow from one nerve cell to the nest.
>
> The antagonist molecule binds to a certain neurotransmitter receptor (eg. dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine) and blocks (inhibits) the appropriate neurotransmitter from binding to it's receptor.
>
> If the neurotransmitter, which is released into the synaptic gap between 2 nerve cells, is not able to pass the electrical signal along nerves, thus decreasing the number and severity symptoms due to an excess of that neurotransmitter.
>
> For example; dopamine antagonist usually refers to a "Dopamine-type2-receptor blocker". Examples of these are the traditional antipsychotics like Largactil™ (chlorpromazine); Mellaril™/Thorazine™ (thioridazine); Haldol™ (haloperidol), and the newer mood-stabilizing antipsychotics like Risperdal™ (riperidone); Zyprexa™ (olanzapine); Clozaril™ (clozapine), and the rest.
>
> Psychoses is thought to be caused by a faulty, perhaps oversensitive &/or overactive, dopamine system. By blocking dopamine-D2-receptors, the overactive dopamine signal is muted, and there is, hopefully, a corresponding drop in the symptoms of psychosis.
>
> I hope that this is of some help. - Cam
>
>
>
> > what is an "antagonist" (as in "dopamine antagonist") and is it easy to explain in everyday language?
> >
> > -puppy-

 

Re: MORE HELP WITH TERMINOLOGY PLEASE

Posted by DiscoPuppy on June 26, 2002, at 12:55:16

In reply to MORE HELP WITH TERMINOLOGY PLEASE, posted by DiscoPuppy on June 26, 2002, at 3:02:45

Thanks, Cam for explaining it in a way us "commoners" can understand. But what you described to me STILL sounds a lot like reuptake inhibition.

So now my question becomes what is the difference between an antagonist and a reuptake inhibitor?

Oh, and Medlib, I tried reading that Cam post - I could really understand it. Maybe I should have studied pharmacology instead of music in college. <sigh>

-puppy-

> I think I have a good handle on what reuptake inhibition, neurotransmitter release, and monoamine oxidase inhibition is, but. . .
>
> what is an "antagonist" (as in "dopamine antagonist") and is it easy to explain in everyday language?
>
> -puppy-

 

Re: MORE HELP WITH TERMINOLOGY PLEASE » DiscoPuppy

Posted by fachad on June 26, 2002, at 23:12:57

In reply to Re: MORE HELP WITH TERMINOLOGY PLEASE, posted by DiscoPuppy on June 26, 2002, at 12:55:16

I'll take a try at that question.

They are very similar in action, but at different sites, and with different results.

A classical antagonist blocks the post-synaptic receptor. That blocking causes the impulse of the nerve to be stopped or dampened. The reason for that action is there is no place for the neurotransmitter to "land", so the nerve is not stimulated to fire.

A reuptake blocker blocks the pre-synaptic reuptake pump. That blocking causes the impulse to be increased. The reason for that action is that the neurotransmitter cannot go back into its storage vessel, so it keeps making the nerve fire more.

But really both antagonists and reuptake inhibitors block sites on nerve cells, so you are right, they are both similar in their actions in that regard.


> Thanks, Cam for explaining it in a way us "commoners" can understand. But what you described to me STILL sounds a lot like reuptake inhibition.
>
> So now my question becomes what is the difference between an antagonist and a reuptake inhibitor?
>
> Oh, and Medlib, I tried reading that Cam post - I could really understand it. Maybe I should have studied pharmacology instead of music in college. <sigh>
>
> -puppy-
>
> > I think I have a good handle on what reuptake inhibition, neurotransmitter release, and monoamine oxidase inhibition is, but. . .
> >
> > what is an "antagonist" (as in "dopamine antagonist") and is it easy to explain in everyday language?
> >
> > -puppy-


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