Posted by poser938 on September 6, 2011, at 1:33:40
hmm... when you block off the presynaptic autoreceptors, therefore increasing dopamine release, is it known if that dopamine stimulates the postsynaptic receptors? my knowledge on things like this isn't too great but i'm trying to read into it. i'm about to start taking the amisulpride becaue of long term/permanent mirapex induced anhedonia and i was confused about how it caused anhedonia, so i thought maybe i could kinda undo the effects of mirapex with risperdal, but after 6 weeks on it i felt no effect from it at all. then i found an article explaining that mirapex stimulates the dopamine autoreceptors, therefore decreasing dopamine release. so if that's true then an autoreceptor antagonist should be exactly what I need, right?
and then there's this article
explaining how mirapex can act as an antipsychotic specifically in low doses (less than 1mg) and as as an antiparkinsons med in higher doses. but, now im confused because i took mirapex from 1 to 2mgs and it still had an antipsychotic effect on me by blunting my emotions strongly.AHHHH!!!!