Posted by SLS on July 3, 2009, at 17:28:37
In reply to Re: Going back to old-school - lithium., posted by linkadge on July 3, 2009, at 16:55:25
Linkadge, what the hell took you so long?
> >Right now, I am of the opinion that drug-induced >manias are indicators of a bipolar diathesis.
> Its a convenient little hypothesis which protects the supposed integrity of psychiatry.
I don't understand. What exactly would upset the integrity of psychiatry if it were found that drug-induced manias were not necessarily the result of an underlying bipolar disorder.
> Why is it that some antdidepressants are more likly to induce mania than others?
They are probably more heavily catecholaminergic. Anyway, in what way is this fact relevant to your beliefs regarding drug-induced manias?
> I trust Dr. Manjii and his quote "It seems that given the right conditions, anyone can have a manic episode"
I would like to see the text which surrounds the quote. I would be interested to know under what circumstances he feels he can produce mania in a mentally healthy person. Even prednisone can produce psychosis. I have no problem with the concept, just its execution.