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Re: Nardil completely suppresses REM sleep » linkadge

Posted by Girlnterrupted78 on August 23, 2007, at 3:00:34

In reply to Re: Nardil completely suppresses REM sleep, posted by linkadge on August 21, 2007, at 19:40:19

This stuff is really new for me, so I don't quite understand everything. But I did a search and found this:

CONCLUSIONS: Antidepressant response to phenelzine treatment does not depend on elimination of REM sleep or inhibition of SWA in non-REM sleep. In depressed patients, REM sleep is regulated independently from non-REM sleep and can be manipulated without altering the dynamics of SWA.

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/sites/entrez?Db=pubmed&Cmd=ShowDetailView&TermToSearch=11231834&ordinalpos=1&itool=EntrezSystem2.PEntrez.Pubmed.Pubmed_ResultsPanel.Pubmed_RVAbstractPlus

Just a question: Why would elimination of REM sleep have antidepressant effects? Does this have anything to do with neurotransmitters? My understanding is that depression might be caused by a depletion or a lack of serotonin, dopamine, norepinephrine, GABA, etc. What is the role of REM in here?

Thanks for the info


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URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20070815/msgs/777962.html