Posted by Don_Bristol on April 17, 2006, at 14:03:41
Some of you wil have seen my recent posts about the sedative effects of Zyprexa.
I now want to think more broadly and think about all sedative meds such as antihistamines, some blood pressure meds, tricyclic antidepressants and so on.
My QUESTION to you people is ... if a med has sedative effects then will those sedative effects reduce anxiety and therefore the med may be said to be an anxiolytic.
One group of meds which is sedative and also an anxiolytic is the benzodiazepines. I was wondering if their anxiolytic effect was due to their sedative effect - in which case the other sedative meds would also be anxiolytics.
Ir maybe the ability to be an anxiolytic is linked to sedation but there is not a clear 1-to-1 relationship.
For example, perhaps anxiolytics must be sedative but maybe there also need to have another property. [Sedation is necessary but not sufficient.]
Or perhaps, for example, some anxiolytics may be sedative and other anxiolytics maynot be sedative. [Sedation may or may not be present.]
Any info?
poster:Don_Bristol
thread:634162
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060417/msgs/634162.html