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Re: Why would there be a difference in affects? Denise1966

Posted by Racer on July 15, 2005, at 16:40:41

In reply to Re: Why would there be a difference in affects?, posted by Denise1966 on July 15, 2005, at 15:19:45

> Hi,
>
> I don't understand, why would there be a difference in affects anyway between a disolvable version of a drug and one you swallow. Surely they're still both the same drug and do the same thing at the end of the day?
>
> Can somebody explain this to me please?
>
>
> Denise
>
>

Well, although the drug is the same, the inactive ingredients won't be, and some people might react differently to those inert ingredients.

And sometimes the "placebo effect" can make a difference: someone who thinks that a different version might work differently might react differently.

I suppose it's also possible that there could be differences in someone's saliva that might break down the chemicals differently? Dunno...

Those are the things that come to my mind, at least...


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URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050713/msgs/528173.html