Posted by Kreedi on April 17, 2005, at 6:44:50
I've taken mirtazapine (Remeron) just once, a few years ago -- the dose was 7.5 mg (half a tablet). I was knocked out for over 20 hours, I think I woke up at 8 pm the next day and _still_ felt groggy. So that was it, I didn't want to spend life in drug-induced stupor. I'm very sensitive to antihistamines (Benadryl etc).
But I do have insomnia problems, for which I've been taking (recently) Xanax and Ambien. Would a really _really_ low dose of Remeron, say 1 or 2 mg, have lower (but still effective) sedative properties? Logically, the answer would seem to be yes, but I know that Remeron is more sedating at lower doses (15 mg or so), more activating at higher doses (45 mg and up). Does this inverse law apply even with really tiny doses like 1 or 2 mg? Will check with my pdoc but am not seeing him for another two weeks so I thought I'd ask here.
Thanks,
Kreedi
poster:Kreedi
thread:485376
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050413/msgs/485376.html