Posted by lostforwards on October 27, 2004, at 15:03:21
First: does a relative drop in dopamine levels send a person to sleep?
Next, is there any sense to what I'm about to explain or am I just worrying too much?
I used to take Respirdal at night and it used put me to sleep which I guess isn't a surprize. While on it at that time, I started to "feel like a ghost". I couldn't feel my emotions. After quitting I got the usual withdrwal including insomnia.
I started to take it in the morning. I couldn't fall asleep at night. Would taking it in the AM further enforce any ghostly feelings, or mask them by pushing more dopamine to the other receptors besides D2.
I think I got used to it and I felt normal while taking it in the AM and taking a phenothiazine to further drop my dopamine levels and put me to sleep. So my absolute dopamine levels were actually a lot lower. What kind of changes were going on in my brain?
Is my emotional depth will be gone for good due to changes that occured on the meds? I'm not sure of the intentions of my docs either. Right now I feel very shallow and emotionless, I think they might've switched the antipsychotic to the morning intentionally for some long lasting effect ( even after the drug is taken away )
Is it at all possible?
poster:lostforwards
thread:407985
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20041024/msgs/407985.html