Posted by john1022 on December 9, 2003, at 13:39:41
Ok here is my question, and I will do my best to explain what I am trying to figure out. I very much appreciate any help with trying to understand some of these concepts and what might possibly be going on with me.
I have some kind of chemical imbalance where insomnia seems to be the most serious problem. I also have felt a little off and had a little anxiety since the insomnia problem started. I am assuming this imbalance could have to do with the 5ht2 receptor.
This happened to me years ago and I took Effexor and felt 100% back to normal and sleeping like a baby within a month of taking the Effexor.
Now I am trying to figure out which anti-depressant I should try next. I recently had a bad reaction to Effexor, so that might be out of there.
Basically, will something like Remeron or Lexapro with 5ht2 antagonism actually "fix" the 5ht2 receptor imbalance, or is it more like it is just masking the insomnia problem with antagonism? (does antagosism help correct an imbalance?)
I am just curious, because I know Effexor has no antagonism affect, but has a stimulating inhibitory effect which causes insomnia in some, but in my case it fixed the insomnia within a month. So I am wondering if I actually need the reuptake properties moreso than the antagonism to "fix" the imbalance instead of mask it.
I am wondering if by blockading/antagonizing the 5ht2 receptor if it is not getting worked on or having the serotonin kind of stay on the receptor longer like it should?
Or in fact will antagonism of the 5ht2 receptor in Remeron be even more effective in keeping the serotonin in the receptor for longer period of time before being releases and maybe even helping more with the imbalance?
Basically my question is, does antagonism fix an imbalance like reuptake inhibition is theorized to, or does it just mask the problem and when I stop taking the Remeron will I go back to having sleeping problems?
I am just worried because Effexor once fixed me and now I cannot really take it because of it causing more depression and anxiety and seemed to be having an opposite effect last time I took it. The doc say I am BP, but wouldn't a manic reaction be more of an uppy, fast talking, excited reaction to the anti-depressant? Will I be able to add a mood stabilizer first and then try Effexor again?
I appreciate any and all help at trying to understand my problem and to understand how antagonism vs reuptake inhibition work. Thank you so much
poster:john1022
thread:288035
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20031208/msgs/288035.html