Posted by Taylor123 on May 12, 2003, at 19:42:04
In reply to Re: Diagnosis of BP II after AD-induced Mania, posted by djmmm on May 12, 2003, at 16:32:13
Thanx for the link djmmm.
It is informative to realise that the spectrum of bipolar is identified, but it really doesn't answer the question of why one has to be labelled with a condition, which could be the direct result of medication.
After all, do they label people with 'steroid-induced psychosis' as having a psychotic disorder?
Umm...Take care!
poster:Taylor123
thread:226118
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030505/msgs/226193.html