Posted by Sigolène on July 17, 2002, at 5:00:26
In reply to Re: enhancing and decreasing the same neurotransmitter, posted by cybercafe on July 17, 2002, at 2:44:16
Tank you for your explaination.
I know that antipsychotics are blocking receptors and not decreasing anything directly. But i mean, if we block a specific receptor, then we decrease the effect of the neurotransmitter. So, in one way we stimulate (by blocking 5HT reuptake for example) and on the other way we decrease the effect of 5HT or DA, even if it doesn't concern all the 5HT or DA receptors. Do you still think it's logical ?
poster:Sigolène
thread:112626
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020709/msgs/112637.html